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While the first statement is probably correct, I "hae me doobts" about the second. History is replete with examples of the use of religion to control the many by the few, and you have used several in your post, but do you have any examples to the contrary which could be used as evidence of your conjecture that the assertion is false? I know of none myself, but then I haven't made a comprehensive search for them.
It has been those who abuse or eliminate religion for the purpose of empowerment and control that have caused the most harm.
I'm sure that some would say that religion is only about the control of the many by the few, but I think that is a false assertion.