Re: L2 - Ohm's law (was F=ma).

[Ludwik Kowalski <KowalskiL@MAIL.MONTCLAIR.EDU>]

This 1/m (see below) is like conductivity=1/resistivity.
To what extent is I=V/R a good analogy for a=F/m?

Leigh Palmer wrote:

> I've always looked at Newton's second law as being somehow incomplete.
> It does not include what I consider to be a causal element. Forces do
> cause accelerations, at least that is what my intuition tells me, or I
> was successfully brainwashed a long time ago. (This latter possibility
> is often referred to as "common sense".) Newton's law, especially
> written with a "coefficient of inertia", the mass, does not imply that
> forces cause acceleration. If one were to write it as a=HF, where
> H=1/m is the coefficient of compliance (or some other such name) it
> would look better to me.
>
> Someone clever must have written about this. Anyone out there know a
> favorite read on the topic?
>
> Leigh