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if I am taken to a lab where the
gravitational field is not homogenous, I should be able to discern the
accelerations I measure are caused by gravity rather than any uniform
acceleration of the lab.
I don't see why that invalidates anything
Is the problem some people have with what I am saying simply the fact that
we do not know of any homogeneous gravitational fields? If so, is it valid
to claim (2) is not true. Or is it valid to say that F=mg and F=ma are
always distinguishable?
I think the heart of the matter I am trying to get at is: If there is any
difference between a homogeneous gravitational field and a reference frame
in uniform acceleration, what is this difference?
If there isn't any, then
there also isn't any difference between F=mg and F=ma.
If this is true then why can't we call "g" an acceleration and
why can't we call "a" a gravity field?
It seems another way to say this is to ask gravitational mass versus
inertial mass questions.