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Re: [Phys-L] unit for "pure ratio"



Not sure I see the utility of inventing some sort of unit for dimensionless
numbers. As Marty notes, this will lead to far more confusion than not,
and solves a problem that really doesn't exist.

On Sun, Jul 24, 2016 at 8:11 AM, Marty Weiss <martweiss@comcast.net> wrote:

There’s another aspect to this pertaining to the final unit after you have
done the math. For example using the coefficient of friction in the
calculation yields a force which is in Newtons. Ff = “mu" (x) Fnormal
But calling the “mu” with the unit “perun" will give the final answer
perun-Newtons which doesn’t make any sense. If you leave the perun unit
out then why have it at all?




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Todd K. Pedlar
Associate Professor of Physics
Luther College, Decorah, IA
pedlto01@luther.edu