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At 21:35 -0500 12/23/2010, ludwik kowalski wrote:
Nothing's wrong with it, as far as it goes. From the philosophical
On Dec 23, 2010, at 8:59 PM, ludwik kowalski wrote:
Bob Zannelli wrote: "In an absolute sense the why question may have
no answer."
Not when we agree that "why X" is the same as "what caused X." For
example, "why was an explosion in my microwaves owen today?"
And here is a more familiar illustration. Why is a terminal velocity
reached by a parachute? Because of the "air resistance." What is
wrong with this answer in a physics class?
POV, however, it isn't the end of the line. There are a whole string
of further "why" questions that one could ask--"Why does air have
'resistance'?" "Why do the molecules of air impede the fall of the
object?". . . and so on, until one comes to the "ultimate" question,
in which case the answer must be of the nature "Because that's the
way nature works," or something like that.
We frequently use "how" and "why" in a more or less synonymous way,
but they are, philosopically different words with different meanings,
and that becomes most evident when we reach the end of the chain--the
point where there is no satisfying answer to the "why" question.
And even that is a moving target. As science progresses, we get to
push the ultimate question back, a layer at a time. But we can never
get rid of it--only put more intervening questions into the picture.
Hugh
--
Hugh Haskell
mailto:hugh@ieer.org
mailto:haskellh@verizon.net
It isn't easy being green.
--Kermit Lagrenouille
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