Re: [Phys-l] Collision of irregular bodies

["R. McDermott" <rmcder@gmail.com>]

Regardless of what it "sounds like" to you, John, have you anything to add 
that might clarify how it might be otherwise, or is a flip response to be 
the sum total of your contribution?  You posted that this did not have to be 
so.  I don't see how that could happen and asked you , nicely, for 
clarification.  Hopefully someone else will have some useful to add...

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "John Denker" <jsd@av8n.com>
To: "Forum for Physics Educators" <phys-l@carnot.physics.buffalo.edu>
Sent: Friday, August 11, 2006 7:40 PM
Subject: Re: [Phys-l] Collision of irregular bodies


> R. McDermott wrote:
> > In the absence of tangential effects (friction or an equivilent) wouldn't
> > any forces have to act perpendicularly to the surfaces at the point of
> > contact?
>
> That sounds like a tautology:  In the absence of tangential forces,
> what remains is the normal force.  By definition, n'est-ce pas?
>
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