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(Euler
From
: Dario Moreno <
dmo@HP.FCIENCIAS.UNAM.MX
>
Date
: Fri, 22 Nov 2002 10:35:53 -0600
Roger Roger:
You are right.
My way to present your "paradox" is the following:
Every one knows the famous Euler relationship
exp(ix) = cos(x) + isin(x)
and for the special case of x = pi, we get exp(i pi) = -1
Squaring,
exp (2i pi) = +1
and taking logs,
2i pi log(e) = 0
How come ? The product of four numbers, all different of
zero, comes equal to zero ????
Best whishes,
Dario Moreno.
This posting is the position of the writer, not that of SUNY-BSC, NAU or the AAPT.
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