Re: Surface waves on water

["D.V.N.Sarma" <narayana@HD1.VSNL.NET.IN>]

Let us assume that there is water with uniform depth
(>lambda). The energy is propagated through certain
width (which perpendicular to both the direction of
propagation and the surface) of the water.The amplitude
will be inversely proportional to the sqrt(r) only if this width
is constant. But it is reasonable to assume that this width
is a function of the amplitude, in which case it will not be a
constant but depends on the amplitude at the location.
Assuming that this width is a linear function of amplitude at
the location the power will be proportional to the cube and not
square of the amplitude at the point under consideration.
This leads to the result that the amplitude varies inversely
as the cbrt(r) rather than the sqrt(r) where r is the distance
from the source.

regards,

Sarma.
On 24 Feb 2002, at 18:31, Jack Uretsky wrote:

> Hi D.V.N. Sarma-
>         I can only guess at what you have in mind, but let me try:  The
> source is on a sloping beach?  Somehow you are visualizing a not very
> homogeneous situation.  Pls be more explicit.
>                                 Regards,
>                                                 Jack
>
>
>
> On Sat, 23 Feb 2002, D.V.N.Sarma wrote:
>
> > In absence of viscosity, the amplitude of surface waves is said to
> > be inversely proportional to sqrt(r), where r is the distance from the
> > source. This will be the case if the width of the area of the
> > disturbance in water remains constant. But is it not more logical to
> > assume that the this width itself is proportional to the amplitude
> > of the waves at that location? Some assume that the disturbance
> > extends upto a distance of one wavelength into the water, i.e.,
> > constant. How can this be justified if the amplitude varies from
> > point to point?
> >
> > regards,
> >
> > Sarma.
>
> --
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> you, because that is what I must do.  Tonight it is only you and me, fish.
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