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Re: [Phys-l] Is the friction relationship a model or a law?



----- Original Message ----- From: "Robert Cohen" <Robert.Cohen@po-box.esu.edu>
To: "PHYS-L Maillist" <phys-l@carnot.physics.buffalo.edu>
Sent: Friday, February 17, 2006 3:05 PM
Subject: [Phys-l] Is the friction relationship a model or a law?


I am using Knight's text for scientists and engineers (copyright 2004)
and I have a couple of questions on what he says about friction. On
page 134 he gives three equations for friction:

static: f_s <= mu_s n
kinetic: f_k = mu_k n
rolling: f_r = mu_r n

<cutting>

2. Would mu_r (the coefficient for rolling friction) be any different
than, say, mu_s? And, why would rolling friction always be the same?
In my mind, I can accelerate a car with a whole range of accelerations
so the rolling friction must be able to vary also. What am I missing?

This raises some questions for me as well. Firstly, isn't the model of "rolling friction" simply a means of making sense of a mechanism that results in a loss of energy? Isn't this really a compression-expansion of the flexible tire material that gradually results in a loss of energy to the surroundings? A rolling tire is stationary at the point where it contacts the roadway, so is classical "friction" acting? As to "a whole range of accelerations", this is limited by the available static friction of tire on roadway, is it not? Generating a torque exceeding that available due to static friction results in the tire "peeling out". The actual static friction produced is constrained by Newton's 3rd Law, and can "adjust" up to its maximum value depending on the force being applied to the surface. Rolling friction, if it IS a compression-expansion effect, should also be related to the force applied to the surface (and thus to the static friction), so I'm inclined to agree that "rolling friction" should also be variable up to some maximum value and not "always the same"? Does the text imply that it IS "always the same"?