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[Phys-L] Re: A problem of motion and derivatives



This reasoning is absolutely incorrect. The expression dv/dt (NOT
delta-v/delta-t) does not "define" acceleration, it defines the
relationship between the two functions, velocity and acceleration.
Hang a plumb bob in a vehicle. The position of the bob measures the
(horizontal component of) acceleration at every instant. The acceleration
may be a smooth continuous functtion. It will be continuous if the
velocity is a smooth function.
Rick has fallen into Zeno's trap (the paradox of the arrow, see
Chapters I-III of my calculus text). In the customary language of
elementary calculus, lim (delta-t ->0)delta-v/delta-t = dv/dt, does not
require that there be a finite time interval delta-t. Acceleration of a
rocket does not occur in a series of discrete steps.
Instantaneous velocity, by the is measured directly using
induction devices where the output voltage is proportional to the speed of
a conductor moving in a magnetic field.
Regards,
Jack



On Thu, 3 Nov 2005, Rick Tarara wrote:

I guess I would argue that while Bob is correct mathematically, physically
you still can't have a changing velocity and a zero acceleration. That is,
the instantaneous quantities (the derivatives) are abstract and (at least)
operationally are not 'real'. A CHANGE requires a non-zero time interval.
That interval can be small, it can approach zero, but the derivatives just
tell us the LIMIT as the delta-t goes towards zero. In the physical world,
we really can't perceive or measure a zero time interval. Since the
definition of acceleration is delta-v/delta-t, if delta-v is non-zero, then
the acceleration can't be zero. The _limit_ as delta-t goes towards zero
can be.

So, I would say that in an abstract, mathematical sense, Bob's examples are
OK, but in any practical, physical sense, Seth's statement still holds. I'm
willing though to consider a 'real world' example that would support Bob's
mathematical argument--one that has physical significance for a = 0, delta-v
not = 0.

Rick
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Saint Mary's College
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rtarara@saintmarys.edu
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----- Original Message -----
From: "Bob Sciamanda" <trebor@WINBEAM.COM>

Seth wrote:
| If the object is to change its velocity it must have a non-zero value
for
| acceleration; i.e. to change one's velocity requires an acceleration
(either
| by changing one's speed or direction).

Consider the displacement y(t):
(Think of it as a vertically tossed ball on a very strange planet!)

y(t) =200t/3 - 5t^2 + (t^3)/6 - (t^4)/480

Take three derivatives and plot y(t) , v(t) , a(t) and j(t) from t=0 to
40.
Observe that the thing seems to "hang" momentarily at y=333.33:

At t=20 the object has reached the top of its path. It then turns around
and
falls.
But at t=20, the velocity, the acceleration and the jerk are ALL zero!

It only keeps going (turns around) because the derivative of its jerk is
non-zero (-1/20). ALL other derivatives of y(t) are zero at t = 20.
This should disabuse one of (sometimes spoken, sometimes implied)
arguments
that the acceleration (and/or jerk) cannot be zero at a turnaround point
simply because the velocity is obviously changing.

You can concoct for yourself more bizarre (but possible) motions in which
the velocity keeps changing even though (at some time) it and all of its
derivatives but the Nth one are zero, N being as large as you please.



--
"Trust me. I have a lot of experience at this."
General Custer's unremembered message to his men,
just before leading them into the Little Big Horn Valley
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