Re: Potential of a point charge

[John Denker <jsd@AV8N.COM>]

Quoting Aaron Titus <titus@MAILAPS.ORG>:

> According to Chabay and Sherwood in Matter & Interactions, U_{elec}=0
> at infinity is required by relativity so that at r=infinity, the energy
> of the system (perhaps two particles for example) is equal to mc^2. It
> thus follows that V=0 at infinity for a point particle.

That's comical.

C&S have repealed gauge invariance!  Film at 11!

I get 9 hits from
http://www.google.com/search?q=%22gauge+invariance%22+OR+%22gauge+invariant%22++site%3Anobel.se

On a more scientific level:  suppose I say that according to
my measurements (and my choice of gauge!) the energy of each
charged particle is mc^2 + q*phi where as usual m denotes mass,
q denotes charge, and phi is a gauge of my choosing.  Is there
any evidence to the contrary?  Experimental, theoretical,
relativistic, or otherwise???