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When you write the total energy of the SHO as 1/2 *dm *omega^2 *A^2
doesn't that include the potential energy part of the total mechanical
energy as well as the kinetic energy piece?
Also note that this method (A) has nothing to do with wave mechanics.
It could equally well describe the transport of energetic harmonic
oscillators in a truck.
This is the part that worries me about derivation A. Well said!.
Would it be fair to interpret what you are saying here as implying that it
is probably mis-placed mathematical rigour on the part of introductory
authors, who use method B, to arrive at the standard result
1/2 *mu * v *omega^2 * A^2