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Re: [Phys-L] ?conservation of _internal_ energy



On 01/13/2016 01:31 AM, David Bowman wrote:

The way I understand the situation is what is typically/usually
called the 'internal energy' in thermodynamics/statistical physics
is simply the total (plain old as JD says) energy but *as seen* in a
particular frame in which the system's center-of-mass is at rest
and not rotating, or, more specifically, the frame is one in which
the system's total momentum is zero and the total angular momentum
about its CM is zero.

As I understand it, the «internal energy» also excludes
things like the gravitational potential energy. So we
need to adjust not only the special frame's velocity,
but also its height.

Such a frame may be either inertial or non-inertial

The inertial case is trivial; in that case the «inertial
energy» is the plain old energy, plus a constant.

in any inertial frame it possesses a number of extensive constants of
motion stemming from a combination of Noether's Theorem and Poincare
invariance.

But I'm interested in the non-inertial parcels, such as one
encounters in even the simplest fluid dynamics situations.
Example: Bernoulli's principle.

If the system is not fully isolated but is in weak interaction with
an environment of a number of fixed intensive potentials, [....]

But I'm interested in the non-weak non-fixed interactions,
such as one encounters in even the simplest fluid dynamics
situations.

Another way to keep a system at rest for which the use of a container
is not appropriate (e.g. an expanding gas cloud) is to rewrite the
system's Hamiltonian in a coordinate system that treats the CM
degrees of freedom as their own dynamical variables, and treat the
rest of the degrees of freedom in terms of relative coordinates
measured WRT the CM.

That's fine up to a point, but the validity of that approach
is contingent upon an eeeenormous number of hitherto-unstated
assumptions.

The books that glorify U tend to write things like
ΔU = heat + work
and assert that this expresses conservation of energy. I find
that very very odd, since in reality U is not conserved.

You can talk about Noether's Theorem and Poincaré invariance
all you want, but it won't convince me that U is conserved.
It's bad luck to prove things that can't possibly be true.

It makes the problem analysis simpler.

It seems like an odd sort of simplicity. It makes some
equations simpler to write down ... but harder to interpret.
It conceals the meaning of the equation.

Suggestion: Calculate the heat capacity of a ten-mile-high
column of air in a standard gravitational field. I predict
it will lessen your attachment to U as the allegedly central
focus of thermodynamics. Hint: As you heat the air, its
center of mass goes up, changing the gravitational potential
energy, even though the container has not moved.

=========

Here's how I think about it: Very often there are some degrees
of freedom that do not equilibrate with others on the timescale
of interest. For example:
a) I can measure the temperature of a flashlight battery even
though the electrical degree of freedom is verrrrry far out
of equilibrium, i.e. a bazillion kT higher than would be
expected from equipartition. This one mode is protected by
conservation of charge in conjunction with well-engineered
electrical insulators.
b) I can measure the temperature of a car that is moving
relative to the lab frame, even though the overall motion
of the CM is verrrrry far out of equilibrium. This one
special mode is protected by conservation of momentum in
conjunction with well-engineered bearings.

These special modes contribute to the energy in the usual
way, even though they do not equilibrate in the usual way.
It is necessary to identify them and give them special
treatment, including assigning them their own thermodynamic
variables. OTOH AFAICT it is not necessary or even helpful
to define new thermodynamic potentials (such as U).

Some very basic questions are still on the table:
*) We know that U is conserved in trivial situations, but do
you claim it conserved in nontrivial situations, when the
parcels are actually changing speed and changing elevation?
*) Is dU = work + heat? (assuming const # of particles)
*) If so, is that consistent with the work/KE theorem?
It seems to express a work/U theorem, which is not the same.
*) Is it consistent with the usual definition of force?
It seems that if (M g h) is missing from U, then (M g)
is missing from the force, which seems like a problem.
*) Is it consistent with the principle of virtual work?