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... wondering what you think of E. T. Jaynes' approach to Bayesian
inference. He does not make use of set-theoretic definitions, but
in my reading of him, he does seem to admit that these have
identical consequences in applications.
1) do you agree?
2) do you find some *quantitative* improvement using the
set-theoretic definitions. I mean, is there an actual problem where
one method works and the other not.
3) is there some *practical* improvement using the set-theoretic
definitions. I mean, are there problems that are much easier to
solve, even if both methods yield the same result in the end?