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I'm way out of my comfort zone here, so I might be asking a dumb...
question. What if it turns out that gravitons exist, and the force
we commonly associate with Newton's Law of Gravity (Gm1m2/r2) is
mediated by gravitons. Does a strict adherence to "equivalence" mean
that gravitons would also necessarily be involved in the observed
forces John Mallinckrodt is speaking of in his two questions
(below)?
So what is the current thinking about gravitons and how they fit into
the equivalence principle?
If gravitons are involved in F= Gm1m2/r2, but not involved in F=ma,
then it seems we would have a problem saying that the
rocket-generated force is a "gravitational force."