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Re: [Phys-l] inertial +- gravitational mass



On Nov 20, 2006, at 1:06 PM, John Denker wrote:

. . . It is not news, because as Popper and others have
pointed out, it is never possible for science to establish
the "truth" of such propositions.
We don't /know/ F=ma. [2]
We don't /know/ F=GmM/r^2 [3]
We can disprove such propositions, but never prove them.
The highest praise we can give such a proposition is to say it
is "good enough for all practical purposes, so far as we know". . . .

Yes, precision and accuracy set limits on validations of ALL scientific propositions. Science is not mathematics. What is wrong with the following validation of the F=m*a? We have a nearly frictionless object on a smooth and rigid horizontal surface. Using a pulley and a string a net horizontal force can be applied to the object along the x axis. The cart, whose mass is known, accelerates along the x axis and the acceleration is measured. The net force is also measured by a very light spring (force-meter) between the object and the string. We measure F, m and a. Then we discover that F "happens to be" very close to m*a. Is it a coincidence? No it is not; we repeat the experiment with different F and different m. And we always find the a=F/m. Popper would probably agree that this validation is not deficient. That is how I used to introduce the F=m*a to students.

Ludwik Kowalski
Let the perfect not be the enemy of the good.