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[Phys-L] Re: relativistic doppler effect (was: The view from the Enterprise.)



----- Original Message -----
From: "John Mallinckrodt" <ajm@CSUPOMONA.EDU>

There is no Lorentz contraction to add.

In that one second (according to the observer) the first pulse moves
1 light second toward the observer (according to the observer) and
the source moves (3/4)^(1/2) of a light second toward the observer
(according to the observer). As a result, the wavelength (according
to the observer) is [1 - (3/4)^(1/2)] light seconds.

Whoops, that is correct. I was using 1 Hz as the frequency in the Rel Dop
formula rather than 2 Hz.

Rick
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