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On 11/14/2003 11:10 AM, Joseph Bellina wrote:what you demonstrated was the calculational equivalency. But that
> And if you have a counterexample, then
> there is nothing to prove.
What do you mean, "if"?
I exhibited a counterexample. So we agree I have
nothing more to prove.
> Perhaps, John, you want to rephrase what you wrote?
I see no need to rephrase anything. I have argued
that F does not cause ma, and ma does not cause F.
I have not seen anything resembling a counterargument.