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At 09:18 2/15/01 -0500, Gregory Puskar wrote:
Does anyone know of a reason (other than psychological) why
water boiled in a tea kettle on a range might taste
differently than water boiled in cup in a microwave? //
Gregory Puskar
This is a question at which to look askance....
Have you stopped beating your wife yet? ...sort of thing.
It is not established (as far as I know) by blind trials,
that this question is not hypothetical.
(Double negative = incomprehensibility factor way high!)
I was interested in this comment.////
Possibly a little overstating things with this wife beating comment.
In Brians comment above I assume it means "It is established by blind trials
that this question is hypothetical" I'm not sure that I agree with this.
Mind you, the fact that I don't know that such studies exist does not mean
that they do exist.
-Derek.