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Re: fallacious filtered white noise



At 03:54 PM 12/8/00 -0600, Gary Karshner wrote:
Resonance frequencies of an oscillator are the frequencies at which they
naturally oscillate.

That's narrowly true, if we take "naturally" to mean something like "in
the aftermath of a limited-duration excitation".

Whether they oscillate or not depends on the driving force. If
the driving force contains components of those natural resonance
frequencies, it will cause the device to oscillate.

That's true enough as written, but the obvious implication is that if the
driving force is off-resonance, the device will not oscillate. The
implication is false.

In the linear regime, when driving a resonator with an off-resonance
signal, it _always_ responds at the frequency of the driving force, _never_
at its resonant frequency or any other frequency. The magnitude of the
response depends on frequency. For any finite Q and for any finite
frequency, there will always be some response.

They work by you generating a source of "white noise" like
blowing across the top of the pop bottle. The bottle then selects out the
components of the noise that correspond to its natural resonance
frequencies.

I've never studied whistles, so I'll be careful and just say that if that's
how a whistle works, I'm surprised. It's certainly not how a flute works.

String instruments are not plucked or bowed at the center but off to one
side to
excite not only the fundamental frequency but their harmonics as well.

I am quite sure that a violin does not work by producing white noise and
then resonantly filtering it. You can verify what I'm saying with a
microphone and an oscilloscope, in less time than it takes to tell about
it. Observe that a steady violin note produces a steady waveform. All the
complicated features are (within reason) repeated, trace after trace,
indicating that the higher harmonics are phase locked to the
fundamental. As I said earlier today, there is no way you could explain
that using the filtered-noise model.