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1) Model the macroscopic spring as a 1-dimensional lattice of tinylumps
connected by tiny springs. Let the lattice constant be delta_x.this
2) Each lump has a rest position. Let the displacement field y(x)
represent the displacement of each lump from its rest position. In
longitudinal case the displacement-vector "y" is in the same directionas
the location-vector "x" but please ignore that; it will just confuse
you. Instead, please treat them as independent quantities just as you
would in the transverse case (where y would be perpendicular to x).to
3) Let the force field F(x) represent the force on the lump at (x) due
the spring ON THE LEFT. Therefore -F(x + delta_x) is the force due to
the spring on the right.(represented by
4) Observe that a uniform translation of the whole lattice
y(x) = const) produces no force on the lumps.
More generally, we have that the extension of the tiny spring is
extension = (dy/dx) delta_x
and the force produced thereby is (using Hooke's law)
F(x) = -(dy/dx) delta_x / (s delta_x)
where
s = compliance per unit length.
5) Observe that a uniform compression of the whole lattice produces no
*net* force on the lumps. For each lump, the force from the spring on
the left is just cancelled by the force from the spring on the right.and
So in fact the *net* force on a lump depends on the sum of the left
right contributions:
net force = (d/dx) (dy/dx) delta_x delta_x / (s delta_x)
6) The mass of each lump is just
m = rho delta_x.
7) Therefore the acceleration of each lump is
a(x) = net force / m = (d/dx) (dy/dx) 1 / (rho s)
where we note that delta_x has dropped out of the result, as it
should. This leads immediately to a wave equation
(d/dt) (dy/dt) - (d/dx) (dy/dx) / (rho s) = 0
in which we recognize the wavespeed
c = 1 / sqrt(rho s)
QED.
.... the physics of transverse waves driven by stiffnessform
is different physics, it requires a more sophisticated analysis,
and leads to more complicated results.
Here's the deal: for case (a) or (b), we get a wave equation of the
(d/dt) (dy/dt) - (d/dx) (dy/dx) c^2 = 0introduction.
which admits running-wave solutions of the form
f(x,t) = F(x+-ct)
for any F(), and which has the simplest possible dispersion relation
omega = +- c k
IN CONTRAST... the physics of flexure is more complicated. See _The
Feynman Lectures on Physics_ volume II section 38-4 for an
There are, alas, some people on this list who rely on intuition andseem
allergic to doing calculations or experiments. Some of them mayconsider
it intuitively obvious that flexy waves must be analogous tocompressional
waves. Well, too bad, it doesn't happen to be true.long,
Take a long coil spring and paint the first foot red. Load it (in
extension) with a suitable weight. Measure the extension of the red
section. Take a spring that is identical except for being twice as
and again paint the first foot red. Load it with the identicalbefore.
weight. Observe that the extension of the first foot is the same as
horizontal at
Now do the same thing except use a flexional spring, clamped
the near end and loaded with a weight at the far end. Paint the firstfoot
red. Repeat with a double-length spring, and observe that the sameweight
produces *more* deflection of the first foot. The force is the same,but
it's got more leverage and produces more flexion.
For flexy waves we have an equation of the form
(d/dt)^2 y - const * (d/dx)^4 y = 0
and yes, that's a fourth-order spatial derivative. This is a linear
differential equation (linear in y) so we retain the superposition
principle (which means this is much simpler than, say, fluid dynamics,
where the equations are nonlinear). But it is highly anharmonic, i.e.
highly dispersive. Because of the dispersion, there cannot berunning-wave
solutions that retain their shape. The dispersion relation is
omega = const * k^2