I was reading in Feynman's Lecture on Physics (34-12) about the "Bohr
Magneton" and have a question. With regard to the Bohr model (single
electron with spin 1/2) Feynman states that "For an electron at rest
(no orbital motion). the spin magnetic moment has a g-value of 2... "
Questions:
1. How can the electron be at rest? Would this not violate the
Heisenburg Uncertainty Principle? If the electron is at rest can it
still be an electron?
2. Is it a fair simplification of the magneton to say that this
a model of an atom put into a magnetic field where all of the electrons
have a spin of 1/2 or -1/2 the sign being indicative of the being along
the magnetic field or opposite the magnetic field?
3. Is there any relationship of the magneton to the Zeeman
effect?
Thanks in advance for any replies.
Lee Wilmoth Lerner
Fairhope High School, Fairhope, AL USA Email via:
lw.lerner@juno.com
“But I don't have to know an answer. I don't feel frightened by not
knowing things,
by being lost in the mysterious universe....” -- Richard Feynman
"...unless, of course, I have a test" -- LWL
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