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Why do you say the agent has that property? Does the property have
to pertain to the agent? How does one make that decision? Isn't it
more natural to ascribe that property to the force itself? That is
what is usually done, as it is in the statement of the principle
of equivalence in terms of forces. Alternatively it is a property
of the mass itself, the principle of equivalence being stated in
that case by saying that gravitational and inertial masses are
equal.
Leigh