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Re: [Phys-L] adiabatic invariance confusion



It seems fanciful to suppose that a fixed solenoid interacting with a swinging button magnet
models a force due to gravity at all accurately. Supposing the solenoid imposed an extremely strong magnetic field, the button magnet swinging in its vicinity would likely be immediately captured which I think you are equating to a high value of g. It seems to me that the force imposed upon the pendulum represents work done and so claiming adiabasis seems problematical.
Perhaps a very slow change in effective pendulum length - using pendulum bob or pivot point displacement might meet your needs better?


Brian Whatcott Altus OK

On 2/28/2014 1:47 AM, Bernard Cleyet wrote:
Showing an adiabatic invariance with a macroscopic harmonic oscillator is v. difficult, because of dissipation. For another reason I’ve been changing the effective g of an E-M clock driven pendulum. The magnet attached to the bottom of the bob completes the clock drive and serves to change the effective g using a solenoid waxed beneath the sense and drive coils of the Fedchenko type drive. After many trials, I thought, perhaps a driven pendulum WRT adiabatic invariance would be the same as a dissipation-less pendulum. So I tried changing the “g” using an RC supply to the solenoid (L ~ 190 mH) The measured TC is ~ 93s (R ~ 2K Ohm; C ~ 16K microFd calc’d 32s). Nada! Tho the g increase is ~ 35% (TC ~ 96s and the period is ~ 1s) By a stroke of luck I thought, well, how about the extreme of my previous trials (TC < 1s!). Wow! The product Omega * Amplitude is the same once equilibrium obtained. (W/ and W/O the added g within ~ 1/2%) While the ”supposedly" adiabatic trial has a difference of ~ 5%

“What gives?”

bc theory, etc. declined.
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