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Re: [Phys-l] spherical waves



Oops. In my response to Kyle I advertantly left off a condition defining EM waves in my last post. I forgot to mention the *tranversality* of the waves when describing EM vector waves.

I wrote:

....
For EM waves the monopole spherically symmetric L=0 solution is
not allowed because they are vector waves, not scalar waves,
and have no spherically symmetric solution. (Think of trying
to comb the hair on a hairy sphere). The lowest order
multipole solution has L = 1 (i.e. the angular symmetry of a
chemist's p-orbital). ....

But what I ought to have written is:

"For EM waves the monopole spherically symmetric L=0 solution is not allowed because they are *transverse* vector waves, not scalar waves, and have no spherically symmetric solution. (Think of trying to comb the hair on a hairy sphere). The lowest order multipole solution has L = 1 (i.e. the angular symmetry of a chemist's p-orbital)."

It is the transversality of the EM waves that forbids the spherically symmetric solution. It is possible to have a *longitudinal* spherically symmetric vector wave, just not a transverse one. (For a longitudial spherically symmetric wave the hair on the hairy sphere stands up on end locally perpendicular to the surface everywhere on it.)

David Bowman