These theorems range in complexity, and most/many are
straightforwardly derived. But I don't remember seeing any treatments
or discussion of something like this:
I generally assume that the reason is because 1/f(x) is a totally
different function from f(x), and therefore there can be no general
expression; that is, it is a totally new FT and simply must be
calculated anew. Not to mention the difficulty of singularities if
f(x) is a "practical" function. But I'm just wondering if there is
*any* generalization that can be made, even a teeny tiny one, perhaps
for certain classes of f(x)?