Re: [Phys-l] The "why" questions

[brian whatcott <betwys1@sbcglobal.net>]

On 11/29/2010 7:08 PM, D.V.N. Sarma wrote:
> John Denker<jsd@av8n.com>  wrote:
> > Absolutely not.  As functions of time, F(t) = ma(t).  It is the
> > same t.  The law of motion insists that there is no temporal sequence.
> >
> > We do not have any point masses in the universe. For a body of
> finite dimensions, it is the elastic properties that communicate
> the force applied at one end to the other end. There is a time gap.
/snip/
> Sarma.

Though it does seem nit-picky to point out that for any mass with extension
 in space, a force applied at a point provides a traveling wave of 
acceleration
 to that mass over time, it is only fair to allow this since we seemed 
to be asserting earlier
  that in fluidic motion, there is no pressure change without
 a density change -  isn't this much the same level of argument, I expect?

Brian W