Re: [Phys-l] question about Bernoulli

[curtis osterhoudt <flutzpah@yahoo.com>]

Absolutely not. In fact, the first integral of Euler's equation for nonviscous 
hydrodynamics is Bernoulli's theorem, and it's derived explicitly by assuming 
irrotational motion (and, thus, no viscosity).

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________________________________
From: Bernard Cleyet <bernardcleyet@redshift.com>
To: Forum for Physics Educators <phys-l@carnot.physics.buffalo.edu>
Sent: Fri, November 19, 2010 5:43:09 PM
Subject: Re: [Phys-l] question about Bernoulli

Is there any hidden assumption that Bernoulli requires viscosity?

bc


On 2010, Nov 19, , at 11:41, chuck britton wrote:

> I've wondered about a particularly non-viscous system - Superfuild 
> 4He - well below the transition T.
> There certainly wouldn't be any 'drag' affect involved in the lower 
> pressure/higher velocity venturi sort of exp.
> Anybody have exp. results to relate??

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