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Re: [Phys-l] velocity-dependent mass (or not)



On 06/23/2009 07:27 AM, chuck britton wrote:

Nomex undies have been donned!!

Shouldn't be needed. The following question is a perfectly
reasonable well-posed question.

Fortunately, the question has a good answer.

Is it time to ditch the Lorentz equations?
Some will say DEFINITELY.

Yes, we will, for good reason, as explained below.

I'll reserve judgement until I become as 'intuitive' with Minkowsky
diagrams as I am with shrinking meter sticks and slowing clocks (both
of which are required by the underlying fact of Simultaneity Lose).

Fair enough.

But you are evidently more than halfway there. If your standard
of length (the ruler) has a non-standard length, and your standard
of time (the clock) keeps non-standard time, that's awfully counter-
intuitive, and finding something "as intuitive" (or indeed much
more intuitive) is not much of a challenge.

E=mc^2 is an equation that won't be going away anytime soon.

True.

That's all the more reason to make sure we interpret it correctly.

Time magazine declared it to be the 'Equation of the Century'. What
more can be said ;-)

Quite a lot more can be said. Quite a lot more has been said.
Alas, some of what has been said is untrue.

To make it acceptable to those who say that mass is ONLY to be
considered the 'Rest Mass', a factor of gamma would have to be added.
(right?)

When using invariant mass, a factor of gamma is needed in some
of the equations of motion, but not as many as you might think,
and particularly not in the E=mc^2 equation.

Also note that hypothesizing a velocity-dependent mass does *not*
suffice to get rid of all the factors of gamma, unless you want
to have several different velocity-dependent masses! See below.

Since Time magazine doesn't do 'gamma', I took to saying (to classes)
that it would be better to say that

delta E = delta m c^2.

But since m must be REST mess - it's hard to see how it can 'delta'.
(right?)

The correct interpretation is that m is the rest mass and E is
the rest energy, *not* the total energy.

Bottom line - I'd like for 'real people' to be able to use this
'Equation of the Century' to calculate how much mass is converted
into energy in a nuclear reactor without needing to get down and
dirty with the specific nuclear equations (which are WAY too many to
consider anyway).

so how can we use E = m c^2 in this regime of non-variable mass??


(maybe just by declaring all mass in the reactor to be 'at rest'
- but this seems to be a bit of a cop-out.)


It just works. Try it. Find the mass (i.e. rest mass) of the reactants
and the mass (i.e. rest mass) of the products. Subtract. Multiply by c^2.
That tells 'real people' how much mass is converted to non-mass forms of
energy.

Historical note, FWIW: I have never seen any credible evidence that
Einstein ever intended the E=mc^2 equation to apply in any frame other
than the rest frame of the particle. If anybody has such evidence,
please speak up.

Or don't bother. I don't really care who thought what about velocity-
dependent mass back in 1905; I care what the right answer is. Einstein
got some things wrong. We are not required to do everything the way it
was done in 1905.

To repeat: By interpreting m as the invariant mass, you do *not* lose any
ability to calculate mass/energy conversions.

Also note that the critical expression for momentum, when written in
terms of invariant mass, takes the simplest possible form, with no
factors of gamma:

p = m d(x)/d(tau) [5]

Here p is the four-momentum, m is the mass (i.e. the invariant mass), x is
the four-vector position, tau is the proper time, and of course d(x)/d(tau)
is the four-velocity. Equation [5] works at all speeds from zero on up.

By way of contrast, if you were silly enough to define velocity as d(x)/t(t)
using the coordinate time t rather than the proper time tau, then your
equation of motion would take the form

p = m d(x)/d(t) d(t)/d(tau) [6]

where the fudge factor d(t)/d(tau) is what we call gamma. The gamma factor
is not noticeable at nonrelativistic speeds, so naive persons might hypothesize
that p = m d(x)/d(t), but this hypothesis is untenable at relativistic speeds.

In equation 6, using t, which is not a Lorentz scalar but only one component
of a 4-vector, should set off all sorts of alarm bells. You should know
without even a moment's thought that any expression involving d(x)/d(t) is
likely to require ugly fudge factors (gamma factors).

So, as Henny Youngman would say, don't do that! Use equation [5] instead.

The four-momentum p i.e. m d(x)/d(tau) is conserved. The naive hypothetical
momentum-like quantity m d(x)/d(t) is not conserved.

Bottom line: Using velocity-dependent definitions for mass is a mistake.

The right way to do things has been known since 1908, i.e. for 101 of the 104
years that relativity has existed.










On 06/23/2009 07:53 AM, Moses Fayngold wrote:

The outcome qBR/v = qB/w turns out to depend on velocity, or,
which is the same, the cyclotron frequency w depends on v. The latter
is the signature of velocity-dependent mass.

That's it!

That's it, indeed. That's one of the many ways to show the absurd
inconsistency of the notion of velocity-dependent mass.

-- For circular motion, as in the aforementioned cyclotron, the
3-acceleration (based on the coordinate time, t) differs from the
proper acceleration by two factors of gamma.
-- For straight-line motion, the 3-acceleration differs from the proper
acceleration by three factors of gamma.
-- Meanwhile the total energy (rest energy plus kinetic energy) differs
from the rest energy by one factor of gamma.

These are well-known results; for a derivation see e.g.
http://www.av8n.com/physics/spacetime-acceleration.htm

If you want to account for all three of these phenomena using velocity-dependent
mass, it must be defined as rest mass times gamma, rest mass times gamma^2,
and rest mass times gamma^3 all simultaneously.

Let us know how that works out for you.