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Re: [Phys-l] Tutoring Please



I fail to see whatever point you are trying to make, Jim. If, as I believe, "science" is the effort to explain the phenomena around us, then my point is that an "advance" in science can (not must) occur when there are new phenomena to be explained. The time lapse between the occurrence of a new phenomenon and its explanation may be a matter of chance. On the other hand, if existing explanations adequately explain existing phenomena then there is no need for new explanations.

As for our detailed remarks, see below.

On Mon, 17 Apr 2006, JMGreen wrote:

Jack suggests the following:

What happened to make this description of matter insufficient?
That is the underlying question, what set of facts is your theory
attempting to explain? You seem to decry the long wait between Empedocles
insightful construct and the adoption of the "truth" after 1660. But
there was no need for a more accurate description of matter until
quantitative chemistry came along. What was lacking before (somewhere
around) the 17th century was access to the technology that gave rise to
precision measuring instruments.

I don't know, Jack. It seems to me that most of the advances in
science come by chance. There was no real need to go to the Moon --

What in the world does that have to do with "advances in science"?

certainly the search for quarks has no technological value.

a). I know of no one today who is "searching for quarks". So what?
b). "Technological value" is not a measure of whether a new theory is a scientific advance. The measure is whether the theory aids our understanding (a term that needs explanation) of an existing phenomenon. As one prominent theorist once phrased it (approximately), "A successful theory relates two previously unrelated experiments."

In fact what do you do all day long.

Currently I am doing calculations to see if I can successfully predict (postdict ?) the results of some recent experiments. Some of my colleagues are predicting event rates at accelerators that are either under construction or have been proposed.

Rather it would appear that the chief
mission of science if to get the story straight and for two millennia
people just sat on two theories and stared at each other. Astronomy
had the same problem.

That's an unsupportable characterization of two millenia. I suggest that you make definite statements about some of the papers that dealt with science during those millenia (including papers dealing with astronomy - also a science). Here's a brief listing of authors to help you get started, along with some approximate dates:
Archimedes - about 250 bce
T. Lucretius Carus - about 70 bce
Pliny - 50 c.e.
Ptolemy - 150 c.e. (but see Plutarch ~100 c.e.)
(but see Chapter 9 and 10 of Sambursky, cited in my last post)
Brahmagupta - 630 C.E., who reviews earlier work
Omar Khayyam - 1100 C.E.
Oresme 1360 (anticipated Galileo and Descarte)

It is true, it seems, that there was an 800 year hiatus of science activity in Europe. As Morris Kline puts it (<Matematical Thought from Ancient to Modern Times> (Oxford 1972)) "[Christian leaders] opposed pagan learning and ridiculed mathematics, astronomy, and physical science."

I look forward to hearing from you after you have done some more homework and are ready to try out your ideas on hoi polloi (us).
Regards,
Jack



Was Aristotle such a powerful figure? -- An unquestioned
prophet? Was the Church so overbearing that no one dared think for
two millennia

And, Folks, what about the other questions???


Q1: When did the idea of "earth, air, fire and water" finally go
away? Who last refers to this philosophy in serious scientific discourse?

Note that this concept is being used seriously in some circles
TODAY. Do a Google search!


Q2: Why did it take so long, >2000 yrs, to shake the
four-element philosophy?

Aristotle??? The Church???


Q3: What other concepts in physics persist to this day even tough we
know they are wrongish?

Note that the concept of "fire" as a substance is still with us. Others?

JMGreen

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