The sources I find on the relativistic Doppler effect-- f-observed =
f-source x sqrt [(1+v/c)/(1-v/c)] take into account the Lorentz contraction.
But what about time dilation? Why doesn't that basically cancel the effect
of the contraction leaving the classic Doppler shift?
Rick
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Richard W. Tarara
Professor of Physics
Saint Mary's College
Notre Dame, Indiana
rtarara@saintmarys.edu
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