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[Phys-L] Re: Momentum Again



At 10:16 AM 12/7/2005, Rick, you wrote:
I still think most people are missing the reason for the question about
exactly 1/2 of the KE being transferred in a perfectly inelastic collision
between same mass objects, one at rest.

The question, as I read it, is HOW is exactly 1/2 transferred? Restating
the math of momentum conservation or stating that no real-life situation
actually behaves this way, is not, if I interpret the question properly, an
answer. Here is what I imagine a student thinking:

"A ball is moving along at speed v, has momentum mv, and KE .5mv^2. Now
there is this collision, and after the collision, the math says that only
half of the energy is KE. But where did the rest of the energy go? Heat,
sound, deformation--OK, but HOW does exactly 1/2 of the original energy find
its way into these other channels, none of which are very well defined nor
necessarily exactly the same from collision to collision."

///

Rick

I suggest this is a better response to a question like this:

There is a range of possibilities in losing energy during a collision.
The spectrum ranges from essentially non to as much as one half the
kinetic energy.
We know the upper bound is fixed and it occurs if both objects travel on
at the same velocity. The interval during which this loss process occurs
depends on the available means of dissipating the energy.
If only low loss means are available - the dissipation takes some
extended period and/or displacement and is often oscillatory.
If high loss means are available, the process is fast.



Brian Whatcott Altus OK Eureka!
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