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I think Michael has the correct analogy. The resistive force, R,
can be written as b*v^2 in this case. Rewrite the final result
as
1/(b*v^2) = 1/(b*vo^2) + 1/(b*vt^2) and this becomes
1/R = 1/Ro + 1/Rt
which is an exact analogy to parallel resistors.
Bob at PC