[Phys-L] Re: collision question (revisited) (again)

["John S. Denker" <jsd@AV8N.COM>]

On 02/26/05 09:14, John Barrer wrote:
> .... In the lab cart collision, is
> it correct to say that some CoM KE is transferred to
> the carts' interiors without any simultaneous transfer
> of CoM p?

I've read that question (and its context) several times
and I fear I still don't understand it.

1) For a single collision, regardless of any energy
considerations, I don't see how you can have any
sort of collision with no transfer of p.  That is,
if delta(P)=0 isn't the definition of "no collision",
I don't know what is.

2) The only thing I can think of is to have multiple
collisions which add up to zero *net* momentum transfer.
This is easier to arrange than it might sound:
  -- the "Newton's cradle" machine is a familiar and
   amusing example.
  -- also a symmetric explosion might fill the bill.

The above can be analyzed by conventional means;  if
something else was intended, I need more/different
explanation of the question.