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[Phys-L] Re: collision question



--- Bob Sciamanda <trebor@WINBEAM.COM> wrote in part:

I'm not sure what is the underlying principle being
invoked here (that a
vector quantity must be conserved, or cannot be
dissipated?), but consider
the case of a ferromagnetic object. The molecular
magnetic moment vectors
(m) may add up to a non-zero overall Moment Vector
(M) for the object.
But, simply by heating the object I can not only
dissipate this M - I can
reduce it to zero, without a compensating M arising
elsewhere. SNIP

But we were (at least impicitly) confining our
discussion to the "no external forces" condition. By
extension I take this to mean no transfer of energy or
momentum into or out of the system during the
interaction for which KE and momentum consertvation
are being examined. "Heating the object" clearly
violates this constraint.
John Barrere University HS Fresno,CA


No
conservation, easy dissipation, of the vector
quantity M.

-Bob Sciamanda


On Thu, 17 Feb 2005 15:45:15 -0600, John M Clement
<clement@HAL-PC.ORG>
wrote:

While one can appeal to all kinds of arguments
about how momentum is
transferred by impulse, often these arguments may
not be convincing to
students.

One vital difference between momentum and energy is
that momentum is a
vector, while energy is a scalar. When momentum is
transferred the
direction prevents it from apparently disappearing.
Even if it is
transferred to one atom, it should still be there
when you add up all
the contributions. OTOH energy being a scalar can
be transferred to
internal locations such as molecules as either
potential or kinetic
energy. So it apparently disappears.

This propery of energy makes it more confusing than
momentum to the
students, hence the increased scores on evaluations
observed by Laws,
Thornton, & Sokoloff when momentum is taught before
energy. Of course
they also has stripped two dimensional cases from
their early
curriculum and only do them after they have
exhausted one dimensional
physics.

John M. Clement
Houston, TX

A related question: Does anyone have a
conceptual-level explanation for why there are no
momentum-dissipative mechanisms in collisions? On
the
micro level, if some of the original KE goes to
increasing the internal vibrations (and internal
KE)
of the objects, why does momentum not get
transferred
in the same fashion? I've never heard (or been
able to
give) a satisfactory explanation to this
question.
Thanks for any pearls of wisdom.
John Barrere University HS, Fresno, CA