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[Phys-L] Re: collision question



A related question: Does anyone have a
conceptual-level explanation for why there are no
momentum-dissipative mechanisms in collisions? On the
micro level, if some of the original KE goes to
increasing the internal vibrations (and internal KE)
of the objects, why does momentum not get transferred
in the same fashion? I've never heard (or been able to
give) a satisfactory explanation to this question.
Thanks for any pearls of wisdom.
John Barrere University HS, Fresno, CA