Re: causation

[Robert Cohen <Robert.Cohen@PO-BOX.ESU.EDU>]

According to Bernoulli, does higher v cause a lower pressure?

(I ask this because I think it is a common question from students and it
illustrate a common misuse of the word "cause")

____________________________________________________
Robert Cohen; 570-422-3428; www.esu.edu/~bbq
East Stroudsburg University; E. Stroudsburg, PA 18301


> -----Original Message-----
> From: Forum for Physics Educators 
> [mailto:PHYS-L@lists.nau.edu] On Behalf Of Rick Tarara
> Sent: Tuesday, November 18, 2003 10:02 AM
> To: PHYS-L@lists.nau.edu
> Subject: Re: causation
>
>
> I think the view expressed by many here has not been to look 
> at F = ma as a cause and effect equation, but rather to 
> contend that accelerations themselves are caused by forces 
> (but forces are not caused by accelerations).  The thinking 
> goes--you want an object to accelerate.  How do you 
> accomplish such?  You apply a net force in the direction of 
> the desired acceleration.  Therefore, the acceleration can be 
> said to be caused
> by the applied force(s).   At least in the Newtonian scheme, all
> accelerations require a net force and one or more agents that 
> provide the force(s).  I push the table, it accelerates.  
> Seems like a cause and effect relationship?  In what 
> scenarios (likely to be encountered in intro physics
> instruction) is this not the case?