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Re: A Geometrical Proof of the Non-invariance of the Spacetime Interval



I asked:

Are x1 and x2 measured differently by each observer, assuming v<<c?

to which Hugh Haskell wrote:

Since the scale factor gamma is only = 1 when v = 0 is the rel. vel.
between the two frames, I assert that My statement is always correct,
but since when v << c, gamma become indistinguishable from 1 to many
decimal places, the differences between my measurements and your
measurements will be essentially nil, so, to the precision you
desire, you are also correct. But you get less correct as v
increases, while I am correct at all velocities.

OK - I'll agree with that. So, at v<<c, x1 and x2 are approximately
the same?

but...then RAUBER, JOEL wrote:

I think DH is bothered by the fact that F' says |x2'-x1'| = 0
while F says
|x2-x1| = LA--->San Diego distance.

So regardless of v, x1 and x2 are not even close to being the same?

Am I supposed to be less confused now?

____________________________________________
Robert Cohen; rcohen@po-box.esu.edu; 570-422-3428; http://www.esu.edu/~bbq
Physics, East Stroudsburg Univ., E. Stroudsburg, PA 18301