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(Euler



Roger Roger:

You are right.
My way to present your "paradox" is the following:

Every one knows the famous Euler relationship

exp(ix) = cos(x) + isin(x)

and for the special case of x = pi, we get exp(i pi) = -1

Squaring,
exp (2i pi) = +1

and taking logs,
2i pi log(e) = 0

How come ? The product of four numbers, all different of
zero, comes equal to zero ????

Best whishes,

Dario Moreno.

This posting is the position of the writer, not that of SUNY-BSC, NAU or the AAPT.