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From: "John S. Denker" <jsd@MONMOUTH.COM>This is one thing that confuses me. In a non-curved non-orthogonal Euclidean coordinate system (I have in mind a two dimensional coordinate system in which the x and y axes are not perpendicular), the term *covariant* components refers to the components that are perpendicular to the axes (the covariant x component is perpendicular to the y axis and the covariant y component is perpendicular to the x axis). The term *contravariant* components refers to the components that are parallel to the axes (the contravariant x component is parallel to the x axis and the contravariant y component is parallel to the y axis). I quote from the web site <http://www.mathpages.com/rr/s5-02/5-02.htm>:
For vectors in ordinary non-curved Euclidean space, there
is no distinction between covariant and contravariant
vectors, so the issue isn't usually mentioned when
vectors are first introduced.
"Figure 1 shows an arbitrary coordinate system, with the axes X1 and X2, as well as the contravariant and covariant components of the position vector P with respect to these coordinates. As can be seen, the jth component of the "contravariant path" from O to P consists of a segment parallel to jth coordinate axis, whereas the jth component of the "covariant path" consists of a segment perpendicular to all the axes other than the jth. This is the essential distinction between the contravariant and covariant ways of expressing a vector (or, more generally, a tensor)."
This is completely understandable to me, and I totally see how the contravariant and covariant components become equivalent if the coordinate axes become orthogonal. However, Weinreich (p. 7) emphasizes that there is also a contravariant/covariant distinction in a change of scale of the units along the axes. To me, this implies that even in an orthogonal coordinate system, there is still a visual distinction between the two. Since Weinreich uses electric field as a prototype, I'm lead to assume that {\vec E} is always a contravariant vector even in an orthogonal system and this is a point of confusion for me. Weinreich (p. 8) also points out that there are other transformation properties that could be considered.
(Note the reference cites the E-field as an example ofAha! See above.
a 1-form, but I'm not 100% happy with that; I suppose
it's OK for electrostatics but it's not relativistically
correct.)
Cheers,
Joe Heafner - Instructional Astronomy and Physics
Home Page http://users.vnet.net/heafnerj/index.html
I don't have a Lexus, but I do have a Mac. Same thing.