In a message dated 3/6/02 2:10:11 PM Eastern Standard Time,
trebor@VELOCITY.NET writes:
<< Consider an automobile hanging in free space
with it wheels spinning in place. By merely applying the (internal)
brakes, the KE of the spinning wheels is easily thermalized, without
external assistance. I think we are in a semantic mire. >>
Did the Question change? Many examples can be given where kinetic energy of a
body becomes thermal energy. That's the job of friction. However the original
question revolves around how do we DEFINE thermal energy (not stated but
implied) . No question that a speeding ball's molecules have a greater energy
(to an observer at rest) than that same ball's molecules with the ball at
rest (relative to our observer again). However if one accepts what I believe
is the text book definition of thermal energy than in both cases the thermal
energy is the same. (Again ignoring friction if any)