Chronology Current Month Current Thread Current Date
[Year List] [Month List (current year)] [Date Index] [Thread Index] [Thread Prev] [Thread Next] [Date Prev] [Date Next]

Re: arbitrary choice of zero of potential



At 09:19 AM 10/17/01 -0700, John Mallinckrodt wrote:

...Bruce Sherwood and Ruth Chabay ......

"It is customary to emphasize that only differences in potential
energy are physically meaningful, and therefore the zero of
potential energy is arbitrary. After 1905 we should have changed
our tune. When particles are at rest and very far apart, their
total energy must be equal to the sum of their rest energies,
which means that the potential energy of interacting particles
must go to zero at large separations. If an arbitrary constant is
added, energy and momentum will not transform correctly between
different reference frames. Recognizing the absolute nature of
potential energy has far-reaching pedagogical consequences, and we
have addressed the issues in a calculus-based introductory
textbook to appear this summer."

Wow. This seems to be an in-your-face assertion that gravitation is not
gauge invariant.

The usual response to such assertions goes like this:
-- It is possible to write down non-gauge-invariant expressions and claim
that they contribute to the physics, e.g. as a driving term (source term)
in the gravitational field.
-- On the other hand, it is possible, with a little work, to find
expressions that express everything that needs to be expressed, while
preserving gauge invariance.

For an even-handed discussion of this issue, see
http://pancake.uchicago.edu/~carroll/notes/
in particular chapter 4
http://pancake.uchicago.edu/~carroll/notes/four.ps
and if you don't like postscript you can track down the html version at
http://nedwww.ipac.caltech.edu/level5/March01/Carroll3/Carroll_contents.html


At 09:38 AM 10/17/01 -0700, Roger Haar wrote:
Sherwood and Chabay might want to consider what
one is required to to in QED. That is ignore ( OK
renormalize away ) infinite self energies.

That's another good reason for doubting the S&C claim... but I suspect that
gauge invariance can be achieved even without renormalization.