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Re: F=ma: law or theory?

On Tue, 16 Oct 2001, I wrote:

I agree with the above. However, I was once informed by somebody
(two people, actually, who certainly acted as though *I* was the
misguided one) that F=ma is actually a theory, not a law. Is anyone
familiar with this alternate view who can provide the
argument for it?

On Tuesday, October 16, 2001 2:39 PM, Jack Uretsky responded:

Good grief! This seems to hearken back to the ill-formed
presumption, common among semi-literate educators, that "science"
progresses according to the sequence "hypothethesis, theory, law".
I suggest that there are no universally accepted definitions
of the three
words that could make the sequence meaningful. Nor does
"science" as I
see it practiced on a daily basis, seem to progress in such an easily
categorizable fashion.
Robert seems to have some sort of definitions in
mind. I suggest
that by writing out his definitions, he can probably answer his own
question.

Perhaps Jack has misinterpreted my question. Perhaps others have as well.
If so, here is my attempt to be more clear.

As I wrote in another message, I would interpret F=ma as a law (or
derived from laws) because it is empirical in nature. I have been
told by others (well-respected physicists) that it is really a theory.
I would like to know what definitions of "law" and "theory" these
other people are using.

I know there are no universally accepted definitions. I am only asking
for those definitions that support F=ma being a theory. In addition,
I am looking for an answer from someone who truly views it as a theory -
I am not interested in a devil's advocate position (e.g., "one can define
theory any way you'd like - there must be one way in which F=ma is a
theory").
I am particularly interested in knowing how common this view is (i.e., is it
restricted to just these two physicists?).

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| Robert Cohen Department of Physics |
| East Stroudsburg University |
| rcohen@po-box.esu.edu East Stroudsburg, PA 18301 |
| http://www.esu.edu/~bbq/ (570) 422-3428 |
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