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I must be missing some thing here. Either "I'm dead" or most of this is
common sense. -- The field E, g, e-m source, acoustical, etc. due to an
effectively infinite plane (near field) is constant (that's why g is
considered a constant "on earth."). Therefore, two of them will be
mutually attracted with considerably greater force than the equivalent
spheres and, near field, constant w/ separation (gnomonic: there is a rat
in separate). However, a sphere and a plane will have a lesser attraction
except in the case of equal radii. I'm not up on variational calc.
This is an opportunity for someone to fill that void -- perhaps Michael
Bowen?
Note: the g for a rod is 1/R direct integration or Gauss.
[1/(4piG)Integral(g dot dA) = M]
This gives the result for the field of b.w.'s laminum 2pi G rho(a).
Therefore, the force of attraction of a sphere, M, is 2pi *rho*GM.
bc
P.s. There was a fire in the stands in England. Fans on the other side of
the pitch (50 m?) were burned to death.
P.p.s Did any of you catch the article, "Compressed Air and Gravity:
Physics Finished What Terror Began?" (NYT SCIENCE Tuesday September 25,
2001?