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Re: "4/3 Problem" Resolution (fwd), comment on



On Wed, 16 May 2001 06:10:21 -0400, John S. Denker <jsd@MONMOUTH.COM> wrote:

At 12:35 AM 5/16/01 -0700, David Rutherford wrote:

"How can you admit that vxE/c^2, which is the same as curl(A), is
specified, and then turn around and deny that v.E/c^2, which is the same
as
-div(A), is specified?"

1) Let's tone down the rhetoric. This is not a cross-examination.

2) It is not generally true that v.E is related to div(A).

In my original post, I showed that it definitely is. Here is my derivation

-div(A) = v.(-grad(phi))/c^2 = v.E/c^2

I've used the same reasoning that Feynman used to derive curl(A)=vxE/c^2,
for constant v and E=-grad(phi) (d(A)/dt=0). If you accept Feynman's
derivation you _must_ accept mine.


3) Let's focus on A, and use the standard textbook definition thereof. And
let's start by asking which things are _observable_ (which is not quite the
same as _specified_; see item (4)).

3a) It turns out that curl(A) is observable.
Specifically: curl(A) = B, and B is observable.

3b) It turns out that div(A) is not observable.

I would be if anybody chose to try to observe it. Which they haven't.


4) Gauge invariance is a freedom.

It's only free if the transformation leaves curl(A), -grad(phi), and div(A)
unchanged.


4a) If you want, you can _specify_ div(A), by exercise of gauge freedom.
That's your freedom.

There is _no_ freedom to choose div(A), it's as specified, by v and E, as B
is.


4b) If I want, I can specify div(A) differently, or not at all.
That's my freedom.

No it isn't, not any more that you have the freedom to specify curl(A)
differently.

Regards,
Dave