Chronology Current Month Current Thread Current Date
[Year List] [Month List (current year)] [Date Index] [Thread Index] [Thread Prev] [Thread Next] [Date Prev] [Date Next]

Re: A question about the spin 2 particle.



If one steps past the talk about hypothetical constructs
such as gravitons, there is a paragraph from a Feynman text
at this URL

<http://www.innerx.net/personal/tsmith/Sets2Quarks10.html#sub3>

cited as 'Feynman's Lectures on Gravity, Para 3.4', concerning
two cycles of phase per rotation. The muddiness, such as it is,
is possibly Feynman's then?

Brian


At 11:51 12/25/00 -0600, you wrote:
Hi all-
My complaint is that the whole discussion is muddy, which is why
Zannelli is getting conflicting answers. Different people evidently have
different ideas about what Zennelli is trying to ask.
His question appears to be based upon an out-of-context quote of
language from Adair. Adair, a fine physicist and talented writer, has
chosen for reasons of his own to invent the term "DeBroglie amplitude".
In order to understand the term, and the reason for inventing it, one must
read Adair, which I (and perhaps many others) have not. Zannelli
couples Adair's language with (apparently) a
recollection, of uncertain accuracy, of something Feynman wrote, which I
also have not seen.
It does seem clear that Zannelli's question has to do with the
rotation group, which was understood long before the advent of quantum
mechanics. It therefore seems that the question, whatever it is, can be
answered without reference to quantum measurements. I referred to
Weinberg, not for a statement of a "position", but for a place to find the
appropriate mathematical expression along with a brief explanation.
Regards,
Jack

On Sun, 24 Dec 2000, brian whatcott wrote:

Robert Zannelli appears to be comprising Feynman's explanation that
there are
two cycles of a spin two particle's state in 360 degrees of rotation.
This does not appear to contradict Weinberg's position that a one particle
integer spin state is invariant in 360 degrees of rotation (at least, to
an innocent bystander).



At 18:11 12/22/00 -0600, you wrote:
Hi all-
This is unnecessarily complicated and confusing. The answer is
that a 1-particle bosonic (integer spin) state is invariant under a
360 degree rotation. A 1-particle fermionic state changes sign under such
a rotation.
End of story. For more detail see Weinberg, Vol. I, p. 89, where
you will see that the result is not quantum-mechanical but has to do
with representations of the Poincare' group.
Regards,
Jack



On Fri, 22 Dec 2000, Robert B Zannelli wrote:

OK Let me see if I get this. The number of a particles' eigenstates is
given
by the equation n=2s+1. Any particle will be not be in any defined state
until a measurement is made of that particles spin. An unmeasured
particle
will be in a superposition of all it's possible eigenstates. For a
spin 2
particle there are 5 possible states which are-2,-1,0,1,2 . Now if we
take
the vector in the Hilbert space which defines the mix of these states
and our
2 spin particle superposition states consist of only amplitudes in even
number states then a 180 degree rotation will be a complete cycle.
Should
there be any probability amplitude for any odd numbered state we would
need a
360 degree rotation to complete a full cycle. In any case a 360 degree
rotation always returns the same amplitude.

brian whatcott <inet@intellisys.net> Altus OK
Eureka!


--
While [Jane] Austen's majestic use of language is surely diminished in its
translation to English, it is hoped that the following translation conveys
at least a sense of her exquisite command of her native tongue.
Greg Nagan from "Sense and Sensibility" in
<The 5-MINUTE ILIAD and Other Classics>


brian whatcott <inet@intellisys.net> Altus OK
Eureka!