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Mark, you wrote:
> I can immediately think of a counter-example - two identical sine waves
> which cancel if the phase differs by pi - so you certainly hear the effect,
> but I'm not sure if this is within the scope of the claim.
When I read that, I agreed with what you wrote but there was a niggle at the
back of my mind; I have seen (heard) some demonstrations of this law of
Ohm and
certainly I couldn't distinguish any phase effect.
Later, the thought occurred to me that it wasn't a counter-example but an
extreme case where the intensity of the sound goes to zero. When the phase
difference is a little off pi you would "hear" the same sound as for say,
a zero
phase difference but it would be much softer; as the phase difference
approached
pi, the sound would become fainter and fainter.
Brian McInnes