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Re: physics/pedagogy of coffee-mixing



At 12:47 PM -0400 6/25/00, Ludwik Kowalski, you wrote about Re:
physics/pedagogy of coffee-mixing:


John Denker wrote:

> Suppose you have a cup of coffee and a cup of tea. In step 1,
> you transfer one spoonful of liquid from the coffee-cup to the
> tea-cup. In step 2, you transfer one spoonful of liquid from
> the tea-cup back to the coffee-cup. Question: Is there more
> tea in the coffee, or more coffee in the tea?

I never heard this question. So let me show how I would answer.
Model each cup as an urn with 1000 balls, black for the coffee and
red for the tea. Suppose one spoonful means 10 balls and that good
mixing occurs after the first transfer. Also that volumes of coffee
and tea balls are identical. Pure water balls are white and can be
ignored in this problem.

I think that Ludwig and others might want to consider a few more
coffee/tea molecules that have been dissolved in the fixed volumes of
water.
(Like maybe tea is at LEAST a .001 molar solution?)

I am useing this as an example of how I try to BOTHER my students as
opposed to giving them the answer.
I can't claim to a Socratic teacher but I DO hope to get them
involved in the reasoning process AND it behooves me to try to
understand where their 'incorrect' reasoning is coming from.

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