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Re: microwave, RF heating



Yup! I agree. I'm completely off

First I thought ovens operated in the X band (10 G Hz). Second, I must stop believing
everything I'm told; my informant about stretching was wrong (I'm not very good at
integrating knowledge - I've used IR spectro-photometers since 1960!). However note
attachment; what is the cause of the resonances shown? If it's not simple conduction (
I'm about to perform some xpts. that may settle that issue), then perhaps it's due to
O=O..

bc

more later.

P.s. thanks to the person who found the SH of fatty acids. That saves my* getting olive
oil over everything. May be I'll do it anyway.

* note proper use of the possessive

John Denker wrote:

At 08:26 AM 5/29/00 -0400, Chuck Britton wrote:
We had a MicroWave/IR spectroscopist PhD working for us as a
long-term sub, a coupla years back.
He INSISTED that MicroWave heating is ENTIRELY a conductivity effect
and that there are NO significant resonances anywhere near the 2.4
GHz household MicroWave frequency.

I'm not ready to concur with quite such a categorical statement.

Pro: The result of the experiment suggested in my previous email is that
ice absorbs vastly less power from the microwave oven than liquid water
does (other things being equal, i.e. when they are in the oven together).

Con: If you look again at Jackson's data,
http://www.deas.harvard.edu/courses/es151/pages/gallery/images/water_spec
http://www.deas.harvard.edu/courses/es151/pages/gallery/images/water_spec.html
you see that the curve for sea water cruises along with a slope of 3dB per
octave for many, many octaves; it is probably safe to extrapolate this to
oven frequency (2.45 GHz). OTOH the curve for pure water has a slope of
6dB per octave 10^8.5 Hz (and maybe lower) to 10^10.5 Hz, which definitely
covers oven frequency. So if the sea water curve is due to conductivity,
why is the pure water curve different?

Pro: Meat and soup are probably salty enough that if we ignore all
contributions other than ionic conductivity, we will get very nearly the
right answer.

Con: When heating plain water, for instance when preparing a cup of tea,
the magnitude and frequency dependence are not what I would expect from the
conductivity explanation.

Bottom line: We've seen lots of wrong explanations. I'm not at all sure
we've seen a completely right explanation.

=========

I'd like to see more data. It would be nice to see absorption-vs-frequency
curves as a function of salinity and/or as a function of temperature. That
might make a good student project for somebody.

The conductivity of non-frozen tap water probably varies only modestly as a
function of temperature. That's because it contains something like 0.001
molar sodium chloride, which is 100% ionized under all
conditions. Biological tissues are a hundredfold saltier than that. For
all these materials presumably mobility is the controlling factor.

OTOH, if you go to the trouble of making really pure water, then the
conductivity will be a tremendously strong function of temperature. The
water itself ionizes at the level of 10^-7 molar at 25C (pH = 7), ranging
from pH=7.5 at 0C to pH=6.1 at 100C. That's well over an order of
magnitude in ion concentration, which has a correspondingly huge effect on
conductivity.

Attachment: microwave abs. by O2 & HOH
Description: Unknown Document