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The specification "due to the rest of the universe", which appears
in two Bob's messages, is not clear to me. What is its significance?
My understanding of the difference between (1/2)*sigma/epsilon and
(1)*sigma/epsilon has nothing to do with the "rest of the universe",
only with total charges on the objects under consideration. In the first
place the field due to sigmas exists on both sides of the surface while
in the second case the field of sigmas exists on one side only. Am I
missing something more significant to our debate?
...
Ludwik Kowalski